Veeam VMCE+ v13 — Course-to-Exam Study Guide

Q1 B14

Where a Jan 1 GFS weekly lives on Mar 20 in a SOBR with a capacity tier (exhibit lost).

Answer: C

Hedged. The SOBR settings were in a lost screenshot. Jan 1 to Mar 20 is about 11 weeks. That is past the 31 day chain but inside the 14 week GFS window, so the point still exists. Which tier holds it depends on the missing move and archive settings. The bank's own date math is also wrong. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q2 B24

Protecting an Oracle database that holds all the company's images, with a daily schedule.

Answer: B

The RMAN plug-in uses Oracle's own backup tool. A daily database backup plus archived redo log backups every 15 minutes protects the data well. It keeps data loss small when new photos arrive at random times. Veeam Plug-in for Microsoft SQL

Q3 B3

Which two operating systems Veeam Agents can back up.

Answer: B, E

Veeam Agents run on Windows and on Linux, such as Ubuntu. There is no agent for FreeBSD, IBM iSeries, or iOS (Apple phones). System Requirements

Q4 B10 Lab 2

Meeting 3-2-1 plus 31 days of undeletable backups for backups sitting on a NAS.

Answer: D, E

A NAS repository cannot be made immutable (locked from change). A Linux Hardened Repository can lock the local backups. Turning on S3 Object Lock locks the offsite copy too. The copy job already keeps 24 monthly points, so the 2 year rule is met. Hardened Repository

Q5 B14

A SOBR on AWS S3 as performance tier needs cheap long-term monthly GFS points.

Answer: C

Since v12, a SOBR whose performance tier is object storage can send backups straight to an archive tier. No capacity tier is needed. You add an archive extent that points to S3 Glacier. You do not make a Glacier vault yourself. Veeam documentation

Q6 B1

What an RPO describes.

Answer: D

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is how much data, in time, you can afford to lose. Downtime is RTO (Recovery Time Objective), not RPO. Backup Methods

Q7 B11

Doing every task without logging on to the backup server locally or over RDP.

Answer: C

Install the Veeam console on your own PC. It connects to the backup server over the network and gives the full set of tasks. Enterprise Manager only covers some tasks. v13: v13 also adds a web UI on the backup server, but the installed console is still the full tool. Transport Modes

Q8 B6

The Exchange DAG setting in a Veeam Agent for Windows job.

Answer: D

An Exchange DAG (database availability group) is built on Windows failover clustering. So the agent job must use the Failover Cluster type to back it up the right way. Protection Groups

Q9 B21 Lab 8

Starting replicas at Site B before a planned overnight power outage at Site A (exhibit lost).

Answer: B

The outage is known ahead of time. Planned failover first syncs the latest changes to the replica, then switches over. So almost no data is lost. The diagram is missing, but the answer does not depend on it. Failover Plans

Q10 B17

Granular restore permissions available to the Enterprise Manager Restore Operator role.

Answer: D

In Enterprise Manager you can limit a Restore Operator to certain restore types. File items is one of them. SharePoint, AD and OneDrive items are not choices there. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q11 B7

Speeding up NAS file share backup from the main site.

Answer: A

NAS backup reads many small files over the network. Putting the proxy and cache repository on the same network as the NAS cuts delay and speeds up the job. Unstructured Data

Q12 B21 Lab 8

Starting some replicas on a time delay during failover.

Answer: A

A failover plan lets you set the start order of replicas and a delay between them. Application groups belong to SureBackup, not failover. Failover Plans

Q13 B3

What a service provider can deploy from Service Provider Console 7.0.

Answer: C

Veeam Service Provider Console can install Veeam Backup & Replication on managed client sites. It manages the other products but does not deploy them here. System Requirements

Q14 B5

Enabling guest file indexing for a Windows VM job when the guest is unreachable (exhibit lost).

Answer: A

Hedged. The network diagram is missing. Without VMware Tools (VIX), a guest interaction proxy must reach the VM over the network. Which server can do that depends on the lost picture, so A or C could be right. Application-Aware Processing

Q15 B14 Lab 5

A backup that copies itself to different media offsite automatically.

Answer: B

A capacity tier in Copy mode copies each new backup to object storage right away. That gives a second copy, on another media type, off site, with no extra job. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q16 B9 Lab 4

Changing a backup copy job from periodic to immediate mode (first of three versions).

Answer: C

Disputed key. The bank keys C; the documentation supports D. You cannot switch an existing backup copy job between periodic and immediate mode. The two modes build chains in different ways. You must make a new job in immediate mode and remove the old one. Backup copy job name (v11 docs)

Q17 B5

The steps to create a backup job for new domain controllers.

Answer: A

The first job skipped guest processing, so backups were crash consistent (like pulling the power). Turning on application-aware processing uses VSS to quiesce the domain controller first. Only A includes that step plus a destination. Application-Aware Processing

Q18 B17

Central licensing and RBAC across three backup servers in three data centres.

Answer: D

Enterprise Manager links many backup servers. It gives one place for licenses and role-based access. It is the least work of the choices. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q19 B19

A feature of Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Exchange.

Answer: C

Veeam Explorer for Exchange can restore items under litigation hold and in-place hold. Password restore is an AD Explorer feature. BAK export is a SQL feature. Secure Restore

Q20 B4

The component that takes a GDPR location tag (first of three versions).

Answer: A

Location tags mark where data lives, for data rules like GDPR. You can set them on virtual infrastructure like vCenter servers and on repositories. Not on WAN accelerators or proxies. Managing Configuration Database

Q21 B13

Getting VMware VMs and physical Windows servers to tape.

Answer: D

Back up the VMs and physical servers to disk first. Then a backup to tape job copies those backups to tape. This keeps image-level restore and is the most efficient way. Tape Servers

Q22 B20

What file-level restore to the original location of a shared drive needs.

Answer: D

In guest file restore you can use Copy To. It saves files to a local folder or a network share given as a UNC path, like \\server\share. Quick Rollback

Q23 B4 Lab 3

Rolling the configuration back after jobs went missing over the weekend.

Answer: C

Configuration restore has two modes. Restore rolls the same server back to an older state. Migrate moves the setup to a new server. Managing Configuration Database

Q24 B1

Which restore point is valid at 10:00 with a 4-hour RPO.

Answer: A

The best restore point is the newest one before the disaster. 9:30 AM loses only 30 minutes of data. 1 PM is after the disaster. Backup Methods

Q25 B10

When a point becomes deletable with 60-day immutability on a hardened repository.

Answer: C

The GFS monthly point keeps its own retention of 6 months, and on a hardened repository it stays locked for that time. From 27 May that ends on 27 Nov. Retention removes it the next day, 28 Nov. Hardened Repository

Q26 B11

Why Backup from Storage Snapshots on a Nimble array falls back to normal backup.

Answer: B

Backup from storage snapshots only works if Veeam knows the array. You must add the Nimble array under Storage Infrastructure first. Transport Modes

Q27 B20 Lab 6

When Quick Rollback can be used for a Windows VM on VMware.

Answer: D

Quick Rollback restores only changed blocks to the same VM in its original place. It suits guest OS problems like user mistakes or malware. It is not for storage faults or moving the VM. Quick Rollback

Q28 B9

Copying VM and agent backups to the alternate site on a schedule.

Answer: D

Disputed key. The bank keys D; the documentation supports B. A normal backup copy job, periodic or not, cannot copy file share backups. You add a secondary repository in the file share backup job, with its own retention. Veeam then makes the copy job for you. File share backup secondary target

Q29 B11

The proxy for Hyper-V VMs on local storage.

Answer: D

With on-host mode, the Hyper-V host itself acts as the proxy. It reads VM disks on local storage. Off-host needs shared storage. Transport Modes

Q30 B6

A feature only Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows has.

Answer: B

Backup from storage snapshots for agent jobs works only with the Windows agent. Linux agents can do volume and file backups, and app-aware PostgreSQL is a Linux feature. Protection Groups

Q31 B7

The step before you can create a NAS backup job.

Answer: D

Before a NAS backup job, the share must be added to the inventory. You add a file share and pick its type. NAS filer is used for enterprise storage arrays; SMB or NFS share is the other choice. Unstructured Data

Q32 B11

Backing up encrypted vSphere VMs when security outranks everything.

Answer: B

Encrypted vSphere VMs cannot use Direct SAN mode. NBDSSL sends data over an encrypted network link. With job encryption on, the data stays encrypted end to end. Transport Modes

Q33 B17

Letting SQL DBAs restore their own databases without wider access.

Answer: C

In Enterprise Manager you can give a group the Restore Operator role and limit it to SQL database restores. That gives the DBAs only what they need. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q34 B11

Scaling an all-in-one backup server that has outgrown itself.

Answer: C

The job stats show the proxy is the bottleneck (slowest part). Adding another proxy spreads the work. Splitting jobs on the same proxy would not help. Transport Modes

Q35 B5

Protecting a snapshot-sensitive SQL VM that may only be snapshotted at 03:00.

Answer: A, E

The VM snapshot runs once a day. To meet a 1 hour RPO for databases, turn on transaction log processing. Then set SQL logs to back up on a schedule, like every hour. Application-Aware Processing

Q36 B20

Getting users back to their files after the NAS hardware dies.

Answer: B

Instant file share recovery publishes the share straight from the backup. Users can work again fast while you fix or replace the NAS. Quick Rollback

Q37 B20

Recovering a damaged physical Linux server onto vSphere quickly.

Answer: A

Instant VM Recovery can start a Linux agent backup as a vSphere VM right away. Users can reach it in minutes, which gives the lowest RTO. Quick Rollback

Q38 B16 Lab 9

Testing OS updates against an app in an isolated non-production environment.

Answer: C

A virtual lab is an isolated sandbox. You can start VMs from backups there and test updates without touching production. SureBackup

Q39 B5

A job that picks up new VMware-hosted SQL servers by itself.

Answer: A

If the job targets a vSphere tag, any new VM given that tag is added on the next run. No manual edit is needed. Application-Aware Processing

Q40 B11

The API for automating Veeam Backup & Replication.

Answer: B

The backup server has its own REST API for automation. Veeam ONE has a separate API. PowerShell runs on the backup server, not through Enterprise Manager. Transport Modes

Q41 B24

What kind of backup the enterprise application plug-ins produce.

Answer: B

Plug-ins work with the app's own backup tools, like RMAN or SAP HANA. They make transaction consistent backups of the database and its logs, not the whole server. Veeam Plug-in for Microsoft SQL

Q42 B9

Copying seven Hyper-V VMs' daily backups offsite with long retention.

Answer: D

62 days of short-term retention covers any day within two months. 26 weekly GFS points covers any week within six months. Only D has both. Backup Copy

Q43 B11 Lab 1

Backing up VMs on an FC SAN with the least impact on hosts.

Answer: C

Direct storage access (Direct SAN) reads VM data straight from the Fibre Channel SAN. It skips the ESXi hosts and production network, so impact is lowest. Transport Modes

Q44 B13

Getting Hyper-V VMs to tape: the order of steps.

Answer: D

Tape jobs write to media pools, so create media pools first. Then a backup to tape job puts the VM backups on tape. Media sets are made automatically. Tape Servers

Q45 B3

Which workload Veeam can protect with image-level backups.

Answer: B

Veeam has an agent for Oracle Solaris, so it can make image-level backups of it. AS/400, HP-UX and iOS have no Veeam agent. System Requirements

Q46 B20

Migrating a physical Linux file server with several large volumes to ESXi.

Answer: B

Instant VM Recovery can start the agent backup as a VMware VM right away. You then move it to production storage. The other choices need much more time. Quick Rollback

Q47 B9 Lab 4

Getting told when backups miss an 8-hour offsite copy window.

Answer: D

Backup copy jobs have an RPO monitor. You set a time, like 8 hours. Veeam alerts you if no new copy lands within that time. Backup Copy

Q48 B6

Protecting a whole physical Windows SQL server.

Answer: A

To protect a whole physical server, use the Veeam Agent. It backs up the full machine, and app-aware mode keeps SQL consistent. Note: SQL Server 2020 does not exist; the stem likely meant 2019 or 2022. Protection Groups

Q49 B19

Moving workloads from VMware backups into AWS, Azure and GCE.

Answer: D

Restoring on-prem backups to AWS, Azure or Google needs a small helper or proxy appliance in that cloud. It speeds up the restore. WAN accelerators do not work for cloud restores. Secure Restore

Q50 B5

The setting that captures both VM disks and SQL transaction logs.

Answer: D

Application-aware processing makes the SQL backup consistent. It is also the setting that unlocks SQL transaction log backup. The other choices do not handle logs. Application-Aware Processing

Q51 B12 Lab 8

The main benefit of replica seeding.

Answer: D

Seeding means the first replica is built from a backup already at the DR site. Only changes then cross the WAN. So WAN traffic goes down. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q52 B21 Lab 8

The replication function that sends failover-time changes back to production.

Answer: A

The option reads 'Fallback' but means Failback. Failback sends the changes made on the replica back to the original VM. Undo failover throws those changes away. Failover Plans

Q53 B16

What a SureBackup-style validation proves for ransomware readiness.

Answer: B

SureBackup boots backups in an isolated lab to prove they work. It can also run a malware scan. That covers validation and security. 'Ransomware-free' is a strong claim, but B is the best fit. SureBackup

Q54 B19

Restoring a photo server while honouring customers' deletion requests.

Answer: C

Staged Restore boots the VM in a virtual lab first. A script runs there, for example to delete data for privacy rules. Then the VM goes to production. Secure Restore

Q55 B21 Lab 8

Planning in advance for apps to start in a set order during a disaster.

Answer: C

A failover plan starts replicas in a set order with delays you choose. It is made before a disaster. An application group only orders VMs inside a SureBackup test. Failover Plans

Q56 O2 Lab 10

Checking repository capacity across five backup servers in Veeam ONE.

Answer: D

In Veeam ONE Client, the Data Protection View shows backup servers and their repositories. It shows free and used repository space. The Infrastructure View shows hypervisors, not repositories. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q57 B14 Lab 5

Adding 12 monthly GFS points when the NAS repository holds only 14 days.

Answer: D

Add object storage as a capacity tier in move mode. Backups older than 14 days leave the NAS. GFS fulls then live in the cloud. Copy-only mode would not free any space. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q58 B10

Getting an immutable copy of backups now on a Windows repository.

Answer: A

Periodic copy mode runs on a schedule, such as once a day. It copies only the latest point. Immediate mode and capacity tier copy mode send data as soon as each backup ends. Hardened Repository

Q59 B19 Lab 6

Fixing one corrupted data disk on a critical VMware server fastest.

Answer: A

Instant Disk Recovery mounts just the bad disk from the backup, straight to the running VM. The VM keeps working. No full VM restore is needed. Secure Restore

Q60 O1

Why install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication.

Answer: D

Veeam ONE watches the virtual setup before backups start. It can find problems like low datastore space early. It is not a requirement for installing VBR. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q61 B16

Meeting a compliance list of automated recovery tests.

Answer: B

SureBackup starts backups in an isolated lab. It runs tests and can do a malware scan. It can email a report when done. SureBackup

Q62 B10

Why a restore point on S3 outlived its 31-day retention and immutability.

Answer: D

Hedged. VBR has no well-known 'retention exception' setting. A likelier cause: with object storage, immutability plus extra block-generation days can hold data longer than 60 days. Disabled jobs are now cleaned by background retention. D is the bank's choice, but the question is weak. v13: Since v12, background retention also cleans up points of disabled jobs, which removes option A. Hardened Repository

Q63 B11 Lab 1

The transport mode for an isolated proxy on vSAN.

Answer: D

Virtual appliance (hot-add) mode reads disks through the proxy VM itself. It does not use the host's VMkernel network. Network mode does use it. Direct SAN and Direct NFS do not work with vSAN. Transport Modes

Q64 B7

Keeping more than one copy of NAS share backups.

Answer: B

A NAS backup job can send a secondary copy to another repository. That gives a second copy of the file data. An archive repository is for long-term storage, not a true second copy. Unstructured Data

Q65 B9 Lab 4

Changing a backup copy job from periodic to immediate mode (second version).

Answer: C

Disputed key. The bank keys C; the documentation supports D. You cannot switch a backup copy job between immediate and periodic mode. The two modes work in different ways. You must make a new job with the new mode and remove the old one. Backup Copy

Q66 B4

What happens after more than five wrong MFA codes.

Answer: C

After five wrong MFA codes, Veeam locks the user out for one minute. Then the user can try again. It is not a long or permanent lock. Managing Configuration Database

Q67 O2 Lab 10

Where Veeam ONE shows VMware datastore capacity (first version).

Answer: A

In Veeam ONE Client, the Infrastructure View has a datastore list. Each datastore shows capacity and free space. Business View groups things by business use instead. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q68 B9

Copying SQL VM backups and their 30-minute log backups offsite.

Answer: A

Disputed key. The bank keys A; the documentation supports D. Only immediate copy mode can copy SQL transaction log backups. Periodic copy mode copies only image backups and skips logs. To get the database and all logs to DR, use immediate mode. Backup Copy

Q69 B9

Replacing an old ReFS repository with a new Windows server.

Answer: A

Disputed key. The bank keys A; the documentation supports C. Copying files to new ReFS storage loses block clone sharing, so files grow. Veeam's Move backup feature keeps block clone savings and repoints the job. A backup copy job makes a new chain, not a move. Backup Copy

Q70 B20

Recovering a damaged physical Windows server onto vSphere quickly.

Answer: D

Instant VM Recovery can start an agent backup as a VM on vSphere in minutes. It runs straight from the backup. That gives the lowest restore time. Quick Rollback

Q71 B11

Remote-site backups slowing down as data grows over the WAN.

Answer: D

WAN accelerators remove repeat data before it crosses a slow link. Less data means faster copies on 20 Mbps. They need the right license edition. Transport Modes

Q72 B17

Letting developers restore their own files without IT.

Answer: C

Enterprise Manager has a self-service portal. Users can restore files from their own VMs. The backup team no longer handles each request. v13: Enterprise Manager still exists in v13 but is a Windows install; it is not part of the Linux-based Veeam Software Appliance. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q73 B19 Lab 6

What Secure Restore checks during a restore.

Answer: D

Secure Restore scans the restored data with antivirus before it goes back to production. If malware is found, you can stop or restore with the network off. Secure Restore

Q74 B1

Two apps that can't be down more than 4 hours while backups run nightly.

Answer: D

The option name is garbled but means CDP (continuous data protection). It keeps data loss to seconds. Failover to a replica is fast. Hourly replication could also meet a 1-hour RPO, so the question is loose. Backup Methods

Q75 B3

Two services a Veeam Cloud Service Provider offers.

Answer: A, E

Veeam Cloud Connect lets providers sell Backup as a Service and Disaster Recovery as a Service. The other options are not Veeam services. System Requirements

Q76 B4 Lab 3

The configuration restore mode for moving to new servers.

Answer: D

Configuration restore has two modes: Restore and Migrate. Migrate is for moving the VBR server and its database to new machines. Managing Configuration Database

Q77 B6

A protection group for one department's Windows servers.

Answer: A

A protection group can point at an Active Directory group. VBR rescans it on a schedule. New computers added to that group are picked up on their own. Protection Groups

Q78 B19

Recovering into AWS when local backups are gone and only Wasabi copies remain.

Answer: A

Disputed key. The bank keys A; the documentation supports D. Instant Recovery can run from capacity tier object storage like Wasabi, back to local vSphere. VBR has no 'instant' restore to EC2; that is a full restore. Wasabi has no VM compute. Restore from capacity tier

Q79 B5

Adding VMs with a custom application to a job automatically.

Answer: C

A backup job can select VMs by vSphere tag. Tag the VMs that have the app. New tagged VMs join the job on its next run. Application-Aware Processing

Q80 B20 Lab 6

When Quick Rollback can be used for a Linux VM on Hyper-V.

Answer: B

Quick rollback restores only changed blocks to the same VM in the same place. It suits software problems inside the guest, like a bad patch. It is not for hardware or storage faults or moves. Quick Rollback

Q81 B1

The feature with the lowest RPO.

Answer: B

CDP sends write changes almost in real time. Data loss is seconds. Snapshot replication and backups work in minutes or hours. Backup Methods

Q82 B20

Migrating a physical Windows file server with large volumes to ESXi.

Answer: D

Instant VM Recovery runs the agent backup as a VM on ESXi right away. Then you migrate it to production storage. This is fastest even with large disks. Quick Rollback

Q83 B16 Lab 9

The SureBackup feature that identifies dependent VMs for an on-demand lab.

Answer: A

An application group lists the VMs to start in the lab, and their boot order. The virtual lab is the isolated network they run in. SureBackup

Q84 B1

What a Recovery Point Objective is.

Answer: B

RPO is how much data you can lose, counted in time. For example, 1 hour of data. RTO is how long the restore may take. Backup Methods

Q85 B5

Protecting a 3-node SQL Always On cluster with 1-day and 15-minute RPOs.

Answer: A

A VM backup job with application-aware processing supports SQL Always On groups. Run it daily and set log backup every 15 minutes. That meets both RPOs. Application-Aware Processing

Q86 B10

Choosing tiers and modes for an immutable SOBR with an on-prem server.

Answer: D

Windows ReFS cannot be made immutable, so use a Linux hardened repository. The local server holds only 21 days, so use copy and move mode. S3 keeps the full 60 days with Object Lock. Hardened Repository

Q87 B9 Lab 4

The backup copy setting that keeps copies off a busy WAN during the day.

Answer: D

The backup copy window sets hours when the job may send data. Block business hours and copies run only after hours. Backup Copy

Q88 B9 Lab 4

Changing a backup copy job from periodic to immediate mode (third version).

Answer: A

Disputed key. The bank keys A; the documentation supports D. Same point as question 65. The copy mode is locked once the job exists. There is no setting to flip it. Make a new job and delete the old one. Backup Copy

Q89 B5

Recovering one SQL database consistently with the least production impact.

Answer: A

Turn on SQL transaction log backup every 30 minutes. Logs are small and light on production. Veeam Explorer for SQL can then restore to a point in time without SSMS. Application-Aware Processing

Q90 B12 Lab 8

The main benefit of replica mapping.

Answer: C

Replica mapping links the job to an existing VM at the DR site. Only changes are sent. So less data crosses the WAN. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q91 B3

Two public clouds Veeam backs up without an agent.

Answer: A, E

Veeam Backup for AWS and Veeam Backup for Microsoft Azure protect cloud VMs with snapshots. No agent goes inside the VM. VirtualBox is not a cloud. System Requirements

Q92 B3

What a service provider can deploy from Service Provider Console v7.0 (second version).

Answer: B

Service Provider Console can push and manage Veeam Agents on client computers. It does not deploy Veeam ONE or Microsoft 365 backup. System Requirements

Q93 B14

Adding capacity in v12 when the only repository is a full FC-attached Windows server.

Answer: B

Capacity tier must be object storage, so StoreOnce is out. Windows cannot be a hardened repository. In v12, Google Cloud Storage did not support immutability, so S3 with Object Lock is the pick. v13: Current Veeam docs list Google Cloud as supporting capacity tier immutability, so D would also work in newer versions. Veeam documentation

Q94 B20 Lab 6

Ten VMs orphaned after an outage, with their disk files intact.

Answer: C

The disks are fine and current. Only the VM config files are lost. Restore VM files can bring back just the .vmx file. Then register the VM and no data is lost. Quick Rollback

Q95 B9

Copying hourly VMware backups offsite with long-term retention.

Answer: B

Periodic mode once a day gives one point per day. Keep 62 daily points for two months. Add 26 weekly GFS fulls for six months. This uses less space than 180 dailies. Backup Copy

Q96 O2

Diagnosing known configuration and performance issues without Veeam Support.

Answer: A

Veeam ONE Intelligent Diagnostics reads VBR logs. It matches them to known issues from Veeam support. It suggests fixes without a support case. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q97 B6

Deploying Veeam Agents to Windows and Linux EC2 instances.

Answer: D

Cloud machines is the protection group type for AWS EC2 and Azure VMs. Veeam finds and reaches them through the cloud provider's API. So the distribution server does not need direct network access. Protection Groups

Q98 B7

What the NAS cache repository is for.

Answer: D

For file share backup, the cache repository holds temporary metadata. It tracks which files and folders changed. This makes the next incremental run faster. Unstructured Data

Q99 B6

A feature only Veeam Agent for Linux has.

Answer: C

Hedged. Backup from native snapshots (LVM or Btrfs snapshots) is a Linux agent feature. But PostgreSQL app-aware processing is also Linux-only, because the Windows agent does not support PostgreSQL. So option B is arguably correct too. The question is poorly written. Protection Groups

Q100 B21 Lab 7

Making a VM running from Instant Recovery permanent.

Answer: A

Instant VM Recovery runs the VM straight from the backup file. That is temporary. To finish, you move the VM to production storage with Migrate to production (Storage vMotion or Quick Migration). Failover Plans

Q101 B21 Lab 8

Failing interdependent VMs over one by one as a group.

Answer: D

A failover plan groups replicas. It fails them over one at a time in a set order. You can also set a delay between VMs. Failover Plans

Q102 B21 Lab 8

Starting VMs in order with delays during a disaster.

Answer: B

A failover plan lets you set the boot order of VMs. It also lets you set a delay between each VM start. Failover Plans

Q103 B11

Why a proxy picked a different transport mode than expected (exhibit lost).

Answer: C

The exhibit is lost. It probably showed Direct SAN access mode with no fallback to network mode. Direct SAN restore works only for thick disks. So a thin disk restore fails. CBT state does not stop a restore. Transport Modes

Q104 B4 Lab 3

The configuration restore mode for a corrupted configuration database.

Answer: B

Configuration restore has two modes: Restore and Migrate. Restore is for a damaged or lost database. Migrate is for moving the configuration to a new backup server. Managing Configuration Database

Q105 B9

Sending daily backups from Site B to the main site: job type and data path (exhibit lost).

Answer: A

Hedged. The component diagram is lost, so the numbers cannot be checked. A backup copy job is right. It reads existing backups, so the source VMs are not touched again. WAN accelerators help with the slow link. Backup Copy

Q106 B4

The component that takes a GDPR location tag (second version).

Answer: C

You can tag a location on infrastructure items that hold or produce data. These include backup repositories and scale-out repositories. Veeam then warns you if data would move to another location. Proxies, WAN accelerators and file copy jobs cannot take a location tag. Managing Configuration Database

Q107 B1

What is wrong with a coworker's new deployment from a list of notes.

Answer: C

Each job writes to only one place. There is no backup copy job. So each workload has just one backup copy. That fails the 3-2-1 rule. Backup Methods

Q108 B9

Sending backups from Site B to the main site: job type and data path (exhibit lost).

Answer: A

Hedged. The component diagram is lost, so the numbers cannot be checked. A backup copy job through WAN accelerators fits the slow link. Option A matches the twin question, but I cannot confirm the path. Backup Copy

Q109 B21 Lab 8

The actions available right after a planned failover finishes.

Answer: A

After a failover plan has run, you can undo it to go back to the source VMs. You can also start, edit or delete the plan. There is no Cancel or Copy action for a plan. Failover Plans

Q110 B11

Why each site should have a proxy for replication (first version).

Answer: E

For replication, Veeam needs a source proxy and a target proxy. A proxy at each site gives a stable data transfer between the sites. Snapshots and WAN acceleration do not depend on this. Transport Modes

Q111 B20

Recovering a damaged physical Windows server onto Hyper-V quickly.

Answer: A

Instant Recovery can start an agent backup as a Hyper-V VM directly from the backup file. That is the fastest way back online. Bare metal restore and export take much longer. Quick Rollback

Q112 B11

Slow backups after adding a Data Domain appliance.

Answer: C

A Data Domain needs a gateway server to talk to it. If no gateway is set, the backup server often takes that role. That adds load to the backup server. Transport Modes

Q113 B21 Lab 8

Booting database servers before application servers during failover.

Answer: A

A failover plan sets the order VMs start in. Put the database servers first. Then add a delay before the application servers start. Failover Plans

Q114 B15

Consolidating two companies' backups after a merger.

Answer: C

Since v12, you can move a machine's backups to another job. Veeam does this with no extra tools. Copying files by hand or with outside tools breaks the link to the job. Moving Backups

Q115 B9

Copying vSphere Windows and Hyper-V Linux backups offsite.

Answer: B

Only immediate copy mode copies transaction log backups. A backup copy job handles one platform type. VMware and Hyper-V backups therefore need two separate jobs. Backup Copy

Q116 B1

Making on-prem object storage backups conform to the 3-2-1 rule.

Answer: B

3-2-1 needs a second copy, on another media type, kept offsite. A backup copy job to public cloud object storage does all of this. Snapshots and same-building copies do not count as offsite. Backup Methods

Q117 B10 Lab 2

An on-prem-only SOBR whose data can't be deleted for 14 days.

Answer: A

Only A uses on-premises storage on both tiers. A hardened repository and S3-compatible object storage can both be immutable. Windows ReFS has no Veeam immutability. Amazon S3 is a public cloud, not on-premises. Hardened Repository

Q118 B21 Lab 8

Starting replicas at Site B before a planned power outage at Site A.

Answer: B

Planned failover runs one more sync of the replicas. Then it shuts down the source VMs and starts the replicas. This gives the least data loss before a known outage. Failover Plans

Q119 B10

Meeting 3-2-1 plus 31 days of undeletable backups (second version).

Answer: D, E

The NAS repository cannot be made immutable by Veeam. Moving the backups to a hardened repository fixes the local copy. Turning on immutability for the S3 copy protects the offsite copy and its monthly GFS points. v13: Note: S3 Object Lock usually has to be enabled when the bucket is created. Hardened Repository

Q120 B14 Lab 5

A backup that moves data to different media after a set time.

Answer: D

The Move option in a capacity tier moves older backups to object storage after a set number of days. Object storage is a different media type and can be offsite. No extra job is needed. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q121 B7

The component unstructured data backup needs.

Answer: A

File share and object storage backup needs a general-purpose backup proxy. It reads the source data and sends it to the repository. Unstructured Data

Q122 B10 Lab 2

What raising the immutability period on a repository changes.

Answer: A

On a hardened repository, Veeam keeps extending the lock on the active chain. When you raise the period, the new value is used for the active chain and new chains on the next run. Hardened Repository

Q123 B6

Protecting a whole physical Windows server running SQL.

Answer: B

A physical server needs Veeam Agent to back up the whole machine. The agent can also do application-aware processing for SQL Server. Protection Groups

Q124 B4

The component that takes a data-sovereignty location tag (third version).

Answer: C

Same as question 106. Locations can be set on repositories and scale-out repositories. Proxies, WAN accelerators and file copy jobs cannot take a location. Managing Configuration Database

Q125 B6

Which target a standalone Veeam Agent for Windows can't write to.

Answer: A

Veeam Agent for Windows can write recovery media to removable storage, an optical disc, or an ISO file. It cannot write recovery media to object storage, a Veeam repository, or tape. Protection Groups

Q126 B9

Copying Site A backups offsite with long retention.

Answer: A

62 days of daily points covers any day in the last two months. 26 weekly GFS points covers about six months. Six monthly points would not allow a restore from any week. Backup Copy

Q127 B14

Using S3-compatible storage at the secondary site for longer retention.

Answer: D

Backups must be kept for 30 days, so the job retention must be 30 days. A capacity tier in Move mode set to 14 days sends older backups to S3. Weekly fulls close each chain, so it can be moved. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q128 B20 Lab 6

Restoring a corrupted file on a VMware Windows VM with VMware Tools.

Answer: B

When the mount server cannot reach the VM over the network, Veeam can use VMware Tools. It copies the file through the vSphere API (VIX). This is fast and needs no Instant Recovery. Quick Rollback

Q129 B21 Lab 7

Making an Instant Recovery VM permanent (second version).

Answer: B

Same as question 100. Instant Recovery runs the VM from the backup. You finish by moving it to production storage with Migrate to production. Failover Plans

Q130 B11

What happens to a server when its proxy role is removed.

Answer: A

Removing the proxy role only removes that role. The server stays in the managed servers list. You must remove it there separately. Transport Modes

Q131 B14

Where the archiver appliance runs for an Azure archive tier.

Answer: C

For an Azure archive tier, Veeam deploys a temporary helper VM in Azure. It packs and moves data between the capacity and archive tiers. It runs only during archiving. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q132 B3

Copying backups to a service provider without a VPN.

Answer: D

Cloud Connect sends backups to a service provider over a single secure TLS port. No VPN is needed. System Requirements

Q133 B1

The part of 3-2-1-1-0 still missing after adding an offsite copy.

Answer: D

In 3-2-1-1-0, the 0 means zero errors after automated restore testing, such as SureBackup. The company already has the offsite immutable copy. Testing is what is missing. Backup Methods

Q134 B16 Lab 9

A SureBackup job that only scans backups for malware.

Answer: D

Backup verification and content scan mode checks the backup file and scans it for malware. It does not start VMs in a virtual lab. So it is faster than full recoverability testing. SureBackup

Q135 B3

The feature that lets VCSPs offer backup and replication services.

Answer: B

Cloud Connect lets service providers offer cloud backup and replication to their customers. The other names are not Veeam features for this. System Requirements

Q136 B10

Fixing slow, insecure fulls on an NFS NAS repository.

Answer: B

A hardened repository adds immutability for security. XFS with Fast Clone builds synthetic fulls by referencing existing blocks. So each full uses very little extra space and is fast. Hardened Repository

Q137 B17

What Enterprise Manager can restore.

Answer: C

Enterprise Manager can restore PostgreSQL instances. AD accounts, Teams chats and SharePoint Online items are not restored from Enterprise Manager. Enterprise Manager: restore PostgreSQL

Q138 B20

Bringing a bare-metal Red Hat server back after total failure.

Answer: B

To restore a whole physical Linux server, boot it from Veeam Recovery Media. Then run a bare metal restore from the backup. Quick Rollback

Q139 B19

Restoring a database server without its sensitive data.

Answer: C

Staged Restore starts the machine in a virtual lab first. A script removes the sensitive data there. Then the clean machine is restored to production. Secure Restore

Q140 B20

Which of four VM problems a Full VM Restore can fix.

Answer: D

Quick Rollback restores only changed blocks. It works only for problems inside the guest OS, such as a failed update. It is not for storage, host, or hardware problems. Quick Rollback

Q141 B3

Replicating VMs to a service provider without VPNs.

Answer: B

Cloud Connect replication sends VMs to a service provider over a secure TLS link. It needs no VPN. System Requirements

Q142 B14

Adding capacity in v12.1 when the only repository is a full FC-attached Windows server.

Answer: A

An immutable S3 bucket as the capacity tier gives an offsite immutable copy on different media. In v12, Windows repositories cannot be immutable. An SMB share cannot be immutable either. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q143 B27

Preparing the backup server for a merger that adds workloads.

Answer: D

One backup server will manage more jobs and tasks. So you must check that its CPU and RAM still meet sizing needs for the extra load. Backup Server system requirements

Q144 B11

Why installing on Windows 2008 R2 fails.

Answer: C

Windows Server 2008 R2 is not supported for a VBR v12 backup server. 8 CPUs and 16 GB RAM are enough. A firewall would not block the install itself. v13: v13 can also be deployed as the Linux-based Veeam Software Appliance. Old Windows versions are still not supported. Transport Modes

Q145 B11

A large, I/O-heavy VM suffers during backup snapshots.

Answer: C

The stun happens when a big VMware snapshot is merged. Backup from Storage Snapshots keeps the VM snapshot open only for seconds. So the merge is small and the stun goes away. Transport Modes

Q146 O1

A list of all VMs that are not protected.

Answer: D

Veeam ONE watches both vCenter and the backup server. Its Protected VMs report lists VMs that have no backup. That is what management asked for. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q147 O1

Reports of which servers are and are not backed up.

Answer: C

Veeam ONE is the reporting tool. Its reports show which machines backed up fine and which failed or were missed. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q148 B21 Lab 8

Going back to production after failover, discarding DR-side changes.

Answer: C

Undo failover powers off the replica and goes back to the original VM. Any changes made on the replica are thrown away. Failback would keep those changes. Failover Plans

Q149 O4

Justifying (or rejecting) a hardware purchase request with data.

Answer: C

Hedged. Deployment Projects model future resource needs, like adding hosts or VMs, in charts. That fits a hardware request. But Jobs Calendar shows when backups run, which fits the off hours part. The question is vague. Veeam ONE deployment projects

Q150 B9

Reusing old backups as a seed after a site swap.

Answer: C

Backup copy mapping points the job at the old backup chain on the target. Veeam then only sends the changes. That makes the first copy much faster than a full copy. Backup Copy

Q151 B8

Tuning jobs when object storage replaces block storage.

Answer: A

Object storage holds one object per data block. Bigger blocks (4 MB) mean fewer objects. That is the vendor's goal. Backup Methods

Q152 B5

Two ways to back up SQL to Veeam with Microsoft's native tools.

Answer: A, D

The SQL plug-in lets DBAs use native SQL tools (SSMS, T-SQL) to send backups to a Veeam repo. App-aware processing uses the SQL VSS writer. The other options are not real products or do not back up SQL. Veeam Plug-in for Microsoft SQL

Q153 B10

Choosing tiers and modes for an immutable SOBR (second version).

Answer: B

Copy mode sends every backup to AWS. Move mode frees local space after 21 days. A hardened Linux repo on XFS gives local immutability. Windows ReFS repos cannot be immutable. Hardened Repository

Q154 B14

The lowest-cost storage tier on Azure in a SOBR.

Answer: A

The cheapest Azure Blob tier is the Archive tier. Veeam needs a short-lived archiver appliance VM in Azure to move data into that tier. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q155 B15

Moving backups from a ReFS server to a new hardened repository.

Answer: B

The Move backup option moves the backup files and repoints the job in one step. Changing the job target alone would start a new full backup. Evacuate is for SOBR extents only. Moving Backups

Q156 B7

What NAS backup supports in v12.1.

Answer: A

VBR 12.1 backs up file shares, including NFS shares. It does not back up ESXi hosts, HP-UX, or AS/400 systems. Unstructured Data

Q157 B11

Installing on a physical server that has no mouse.

Answer: A

VBR supports an unattended (silent) install from the command line. You can type it with just the keyboard. The VBR ISO is not a bootable installer. v13: v13 adds the Veeam Software Appliance, a bootable ISO, but the Windows install still uses a silent command-line install. Transport Modes

Q158 B4 Lab 3

Rolling back the configuration after replica jobs went missing.

Answer: C

Use Configuration Restore with a configuration backup file. It rolls the config database back to the saved state, so the missing replica jobs come back. Managing Configuration Database

Q159 B12

A recovery option CDP replicas offer.

Answer: A

CDP keeps short-term restore points every few seconds. You can roll a replica back to a point seconds or minutes ago. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q160 B12

Protecting tenant VMs where no data loss is acceptable.

Answer: D

CDP replicates I/O almost in real time. RPO can be a few seconds. That suits VMs where almost no data loss is allowed. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q161 B3

What Cloud Connect provides when linking to a provider.

Answer: A

Cloud Connect gives a secure TLS link to the provider over the internet. It uses one port and needs no VPN. System Requirements

Q162 B1

Naming the 15-minute limit on lost transactions.

Answer: C

RPO is how much data you can lose, measured in time. Losing no more than 15 minutes of transactions is an RPO. Backup Methods

Q163 B1

The correct meaning of RPO.

Answer: B

RPO means Recovery Point Objective. It is the amount of time in which data loss is accepted. Backup Methods

Q164 B19

Which Oracle failure Veeam Explorer can fix.

Answer: B

Enterprise Manager can restore Oracle databases from image backups made with application-aware processing. It cannot restore RMAN plug-in backups. Secure Restore

Q165 B10 Lab 2

Why immutable points outlive retention on an XFS hardened repository.

Answer: C

Fast clone works on XFS. But immutable files cannot be deleted until the lock ends. If the lock period is long, old chains stay on disk, so storage grows. Hardened Repository

Q166 B22

Notifying security whenever malware is found in backups.

Answer: C

In 12.1 the Malware Detection settings have a Notifications tab. Put the security team's email there to alert them. Malware detection notifications (v12 docs)

Q167 B7

Placing NAS backup data in a SOBR with SSD and dedup extents.

Answer: B

NAS metadata is read and written often, so put it on fast SSD. Bulk data goes to the dedupe appliance to save space. Unstructured Data

Q168 B11

Why each site should have a proxy for replication (second version).

Answer: D

With a proxy at each site, the source proxy compresses data. The target proxy unpacks it. So less data crosses the slow WAN link. Transport Modes

Q169 B11

Redesigning the configuration database so crashes stop costing jobs.

Answer: A

SQL Always On groups keep the config database running if one SQL node fails. The configuration backup tool is the supported way to protect it. App-aware backup of the database is not the way to restore it. v13: v13 defaults to PostgreSQL; check v13 docs for its high-availability options. Transport Modes

Q170 O1

Two data sources Veeam ONE connects to.

Answer: B, C

Veeam ONE connects to vCenter or ESXi, Hyper-V hosts, and VBR servers. Agents are seen through VBR. Cloud VMs are not direct sources. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q171 B5

Protecting irregularly created templated VMs by tag.

Answer: C

Tags pick up new VMs on their own when they get the tag. Disk settings let you leave out the scratch disk. Application-Aware Processing

Q172 B16 Lab 9

SureBackup ping tests fail on Windows VMs that boot fine.

Answer: D

The VM boots but ping fails. Windows Firewall blocks the ping (ICMP). SureBackup can turn off the firewall for you during the test. SureBackup

Q173 B4

Which role manages MFA for other users.

Answer: B

In v12 only a Veeam Backup Administrator manages users, roles, and MFA settings. v13: v13 adds a Security Administrator role and four-eyes approval for MFA changes. Managing Configuration Database

Q174 B17

Granular restore permissions for the Restore Operator role (second version).

Answer: D

In Enterprise Manager a Restore Operator can be limited to certain restore types. One type is database restore (SQL and Oracle). Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q175 B1

What saved the day after losing the primary data centre.

Answer: B

Backup copy jobs put a second copy of data in another place. That copy survives when the main site is lost. Backup Methods

Q176 B20

Two ways to restore a single Linux file to the same server.

Answer: B, D

For Linux file restore to the original server, Veeam mounts disks on a helper host, or on a temporary helper appliance. A mount server is for Windows. Quick Rollback

Q177 B1

A DR strategy for a newly acquired company.

Answer: A

CDP replication sends data to a DR site with a very low RPO. That meets the DR needs. The other options miss RPO, RTO, or are not DR to another site. Backup Methods

Q178 B5

Why a new SQL database's backup was not consistent.

Answer: C

Point-in-time SQL restore needs log backups. Turn on app-aware processing and set SQL log backups to the needed interval. Application-Aware Processing

Q179 B9

Copying Site A backups offsite with long retention (pruning version).

Answer: C

62 daily points cover two months. 26 weekly GFS points cover six months. Periodic mode copies only the latest point per run, so it uses less space. Backup Copy

Q180 B19

Three targets for Instant Recovery of a VMware VM.

Answer: C, E, F

Disputed key. The bank keys CEF; the documentation supports ACF. In v12, a VMware backup can be instantly recovered to vSphere, Hyper-V, or Nutanix AHV. Instant Recovery to Azure did not exist in v12. Azure had only direct restore. v13: v13 adds Instant Recovery to Microsoft Azure, so E is also valid in v13. Veeam documentation

Q181 B17

What SAML for Enterprise Manager needs.

Answer: A, B, C

Disputed key. The bank keys ABC; the documentation supports AB. SAML needs an identity provider set up and a user or group added in Enterprise Manager. Any SAML 2.0 provider works. Entra ID admin rights are not required. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

Q182 B1

Two critical apps that can't lose more than four hours (second version).

Answer: D

Hourly replication gives about one hour of data loss. Starting a replica is fast, well under four hours. Backup Methods

Q183 B6

Agents already installed on EC2 and Azure servers: which protection group.

Answer: A

A cloud machines protection group finds AWS and Azure machines through the cloud API. It adds or removes them on its own. Protection Groups

Q184 B14

Retention plus capacity and archive tiers to meet a GFS policy.

Answer: D

Disputed key. The bank keys D; the documentation supports A. Copy mode puts every point in S3. Move mode after 14 days frees local disk. Archive tier only moves GFS points from the capacity tier, so local disk would still hold 30 days. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q185 B16

Finding credit card numbers in backups during SureBackup.

Answer: C

Disputed key. The bank keys C; the documentation supports B. YARA rules match text patterns, so they can find data like credit card numbers. Security & Compliance Analyzer only checks Veeam's own settings. Veeam documentation

Q186 B11

Backing up VMs in Data Center B from a backup server in A.

Answer: A

Proxies in Data Center B sit next to the VMs and the repository. Data never crosses the slow link. Transport Modes

Q187 B11

Why installing with a SQL 2008 database server fails.

Answer: A

VBR 12 does not support SQL Server 2008. It needs a newer SQL version or PostgreSQL. Windows 2019 is fine. v13: v13 uses PostgreSQL by default; check v13 system requirements for supported SQL versions. Transport Modes

Q188 O2 Lab 10

Where Veeam ONE shows VMware datastore capacity (second version).

Answer: B

In Veeam ONE, Infrastructure View shows datastores with their capacity and free space. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q189 O3

A quarterly capacity report for a director.

Answer: C

Veeam ONE Web Client runs capacity planning reports. You can schedule them, for example each quarter. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q190 B3

A valid service from a Veeam Cloud Service Provider.

Answer: D

A VCSP can host replicas through Cloud Connect. The provider gives compute and storage (hardware plans) to run them. System Requirements

Q191 B5

The component that does file indexing for a vSphere Windows VM.

Answer: A

The guest interaction proxy deploys the runtime inside the Windows VM. The runtime does indexing and other guest tasks. Application-Aware Processing

Q192 B1

The definition of RTO.

Answer: D

RTO is the longest time a system can be down after a failure. Backup Methods

Q193 B1

A company can lose at most 15 minutes of data on its ERP database, and the database must be running again within 30 minutes. Which value is the RPO?

Answer: B

RPO is the maximum acceptable data loss (15 minutes). The 30 minutes is the RTO. Backup Methods

Q194 B11 Lab 1

A proxy is a physical Windows server with FC access to the VMFS LUNs. Which transport mode will it use first in automatic mode?

Answer: C

Automatic mode prefers Direct storage access first. A physical server can never use Virtual appliance (HotAdd). Transport Modes

Q195 B11 Lab 1

Which port must be open from a proxy to ESXi hosts for Network (NBD) transport mode?

Answer: B

NBD/NFC traffic uses TCP 902 on the ESXi host. Transport Modes

Q196 B11

Which port does the Veeam Data Mover Service listen on?

Answer: B

6162 is the Data Mover (Transport) Service. 6160 is the Installer Service. Transport Modes

Q197 B11

In VBR v13, which port does the backup console use to connect to the backup server?

Answer: C

v13 moved console and web UI traffic to 443. 9392 was the v12 console port. 10443 is appliance Host Management. Transport Modes

Q198 B1

Which part of the 3-2-1-1-0 rule does SureBackup satisfy?

Answer: C

The final 0 means zero errors after recovery verification, which is what SureBackup automates. Backup Methods

Q199 B11 Lab 1

A proxy VM is configured for Virtual appliance mode but cannot see the datastore of one VM. With default settings, what happens?

Answer: B

'Failover to network mode if primary mode fails' is on by default. Transport Modes

Q200 B10 Lab 2

What is the minimum immutability period you can set on a hardened repository?

Answer: C

7 to 9999 days. Hardened Repository

Q201 B10 Lab 2

Which backup method can you use with a hardened repository?

Answer: C

Reverse incremental and forever forward incremental both rewrite the full backup file, so they cannot work with immutable files. Hardened Repository

Q202 B10 Lab 2

Why are single-use credentials used when adding a hardened repository?

Answer: B

Used once to deploy the Data Mover, then discarded. A compromised backup server cannot reach the repository with them. Hardened Repository

Q203 B14 Lab 5

A SOBR capacity tier uses the move policy, but no data ever moves to object storage. The job is forever forward incremental. Why?

Answer: B

Forever forward incremental keeps one active chain that never seals, so there is nothing eligible to move. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q204 B14 Lab 5

Which SOBR placement policy stores full and incremental files of a chain on the same extent?

Answer: B

Data locality keeps a chain together. Performance splits fulls and increments across extents. Scale-Out Backup Repositories

Q205 B4 Lab 3

A configuration backup is restored on a new server, but every stored password is missing. What was most likely not done?

Answer: A

Credentials are included only in encrypted configuration backups. Managing Configuration Database

Q206 B11

Which v13 feature lets two backup servers run as an active/passive pair?

Answer: B

HA requires the VSA (13.0.1+) and the Veeam Data Platform Premium edition. Transport Modes

Q207 B11

Which component must exist at both sites to use WAN acceleration?

Answer: C

WAN acceleration needs a source and a target WAN accelerator. Transport Modes

Q208 B8

Which backup method creates 3x I/O on the repository for every changed block during the backup?

Answer: B

Reverse incremental reads the old block, writes it to the .vrb, and writes the new block into the .vbk. Backup Methods

Q209 B8

The customer wants the most recent restore point to always be a full backup file. Which method fits?

Answer: C

Only reverse incremental keeps the .vbk as the newest point. Backup Methods

Q210 B8

Which operation creates a new full backup without reading from the production VM?

Answer: B

A synthetic full is built from restore points already on the repository. Backup Methods

Q211 B12

What is the minimum RPO you can set in a CDP policy?

Answer: B

Minimum 2 seconds. Veeam recommends 15 seconds or more. Maximum 60 minutes. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q212 B9 Lab 4

Where does a backup copy job read its data from?

Answer: C

Backup copy jobs read restore points from backup files, never from production. Backup Copy

Q213 B21 Lab 8

You fail over to a replica to test it, then want to go back with no changes kept. Which operation?

Answer: C

Undo failover powers off the replica and discards changes made during failover. Failover Plans

Q214 B5

Without application-aware processing, what kind of backup does a running SQL Server VM get?

Answer: B

Without VSS quiescing, the image is crash-consistent. Application-Aware Processing

Q215 B7

In NAS backup, what does the cache repository store?

Answer: B

It keeps metadata so later runs find changed files fast. Unstructured Data

Q216 B12

Which vSphere feature does Veeam CDP use to capture writes?

Answer: C

The Veeam I/O filter is installed through VAIO on the clusters. Replica Seeding and Mapping

Q217 B6

A laptop fleet should back itself up whenever the laptops are online. What should you create?

Answer: B

Backup policies are agent-managed and suit machines that are not always reachable. Protection Groups

Q218 B20 Lab 6

A VM got a bad Windows update. Its disks are fine. What is the fastest way to restore the whole VM to its original location?

Answer: B

Quick rollback restores only the changed blocks, using CBT. Quick Rollback

Q219 B21 Lab 7

Which component publishes the backup to ESXi as a datastore during Instant Recovery?

Answer: C

vPower NFS runs on the mount server. Failover Plans

Q220 B21 Lab 7

An Instant Recovery session should become the permanent production VM. What do you do?

Answer: B

Migration (Storage vMotion or Quick Migration) moves the VM onto production storage. Failover Plans

Q221 B5

A user deleted a table at 14:37. You need the database as it was at 14:36. What must have been enabled?

Answer: B

Point-in-time restore needs SQL log backups. Application-Aware Processing

Q222 B16 Lab 9

In a SureBackup job, why put the domain controller in an application group?

Answer: B

Application groups start dependency VMs first and in order. SureBackup

Q223 B16 Lab 9

How do you reach VMs inside a virtual lab from production?

Answer: B

The proxy appliance maps masquerade IPs to the isolated lab VMs. SureBackup

Q224 B19 Lab 6

Which feature scans a backup with antivirus before it is restored?

Answer: A

Secure restore scans the mounted disks first. Secure Restore

Q225 O1 Lab 10

Which port do you open in the browser to reach the Veeam ONE Web Client by default?

Answer: B

1239 is the default website port. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q226 O1 Lab 10

Which component, new in Veeam ONE 13, collects data from backup servers?

Answer: B

Veeam Analytics Service is the evolution of the Veeam ONE Agent and uses port 2805. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q227 O4

Management wants to know how many days remain until a backup repository is full. Which Veeam ONE feature answers this?

Answer: B

Capacity planning projects growth trends to a full date. Veeam ONE deployment projects

Q228 O2 Lab 10

Increment sizes for one job jump to 10x normal overnight. Which alarm is designed for this?

Answer: B

It flags abnormal increment growth, a common sign of encryption. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q229 O3 Lab 10

You want alarms and reports grouped by department rather than by cluster. What do you configure?

Answer: B

Business View categorizes objects into business groups. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q230 O2 Lab 10

An alarm should restart a stuck service only after an admin approves it. Which feature?

Answer: B

Remediation actions can run automatically or after approval. Veeam ONE 13 ports

Q231 R2

Which VRO plan type recovers VMs from Veeam backups into vSphere?

Answer: B

Restore plans use backup or backup copy jobs and a recovery location. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: orchestration plans

Q232 R3

What must exist in VBR before you can create a DataLab in VRO?

Answer: B

A DataLab is a one-to-one overlay of a VBR virtual lab. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: testing and reports

Q233 R3

Which check quickly confirms a plan matches the DR environment and meets its RPO, without starting VMs?

Answer: B

The readiness check is fast and low-impact. No VMs are started. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: testing and reports

Q234 R2

Which language do custom plan steps use?

Answer: C

Custom steps are PowerShell scripts. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: orchestration plans

Q235 R4

An auditor asks for proof that DR was tested last quarter. Which report?

Answer: B

DataLab Test reports record each test run and its results. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: testing and reports

Q236 R4

A replica plan ran. Production is healthy again and you want to switch back, keeping changes made on the replicas. What is the next step?

Answer: B

Failback syncs changes to production. Commit it once production is confirmed. Recovery Orchestrator onboarding: testing and reports